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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Following an on-site examination at a fund administrator, regulators raised concerns about Marketing and Leasing Strategies in the context of transaction monitoring. Their preliminary finding is that the property management firm lacks a formal oversight mechanism for its automated lead-scoring system, which has resulted in inconsistent application of screening criteria over the last 18 months. To mitigate the risk of disparate impact and ensure the marketing strategy remains compliant with professional standards, which action should the Accredited Residential Manager (ARM) prioritize?
Correct
Correct: Establishing a recurring audit process is the most effective way to ensure that automated systems do not inadvertently create a disparate impact or violate Fair Housing laws. By regularly reviewing the criteria and the resulting demographic data, the manager can identify and correct biases in the algorithm, fulfilling both regulatory requirements and risk management responsibilities.
Incorrect: Adjusting thresholds without an audit does not address the underlying risk of bias or inconsistent application. Delegating oversight to a third-party provider is a failure of the manager’s fiduciary and regulatory duty to maintain control over compliance. Allowing manual overrides based on subjective assessment increases the risk of individual bias and potential Fair Housing violations, which is the opposite of the intended risk mitigation.
Takeaway: Property managers must implement active oversight and periodic audits of automated leasing technologies to prevent discriminatory outcomes and ensure compliance with Fair Housing regulations.
Incorrect
Correct: Establishing a recurring audit process is the most effective way to ensure that automated systems do not inadvertently create a disparate impact or violate Fair Housing laws. By regularly reviewing the criteria and the resulting demographic data, the manager can identify and correct biases in the algorithm, fulfilling both regulatory requirements and risk management responsibilities.
Incorrect: Adjusting thresholds without an audit does not address the underlying risk of bias or inconsistent application. Delegating oversight to a third-party provider is a failure of the manager’s fiduciary and regulatory duty to maintain control over compliance. Allowing manual overrides based on subjective assessment increases the risk of individual bias and potential Fair Housing violations, which is the opposite of the intended risk mitigation.
Takeaway: Property managers must implement active oversight and periodic audits of automated leasing technologies to prevent discriminatory outcomes and ensure compliance with Fair Housing regulations.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
In your capacity as compliance officer at a private bank, you are handling Workplace safety and OSHA compliance and hazard identification to protect employees and prevent accidents during control testing. A colleague forwards you a policy regarding the maintenance of a multi-family residential portfolio currently held in the bank’s trust department. During a site visit to a 150-unit complex, you observe that the maintenance staff is frequently using chemical solvents for floor stripping without a centralized Hazard Communication (HazCom) program or accessible Safety Data Sheets (SDS). The property manager claims that because the chemicals are purchased at a local hardware store and are consumer-grade, formal OSHA documentation is unnecessary. Which action is most appropriate to ensure compliance with OSHA standards and mitigate liability?
Correct
Correct: Under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), employers are required to develop, implement, and maintain a written hazard communication program. This includes ensuring that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are labeled, that employees have access to Safety Data Sheets (SDS), and that they receive specific training. The ‘consumer product’ exemption only applies if the product is used in the workplace in the same manner, frequency, and duration as a normal consumer would use it; professional maintenance staff stripping floors frequently exceeds this threshold, necessitating a full HazCom program.
Incorrect: Outsourcing tasks to contractors does not fully absolve a property owner or manager of safety oversight, especially in multi-employer worksites where coordination of hazard information is still required. Switching to eco-friendly products does not automatically exempt an employer from OSHA standards, as many ‘green’ chemicals still require SDS if they contain hazardous components. Digital repositories are only compliant if employees have immediate, barrier-free access to them at the worksite, and liability waivers cannot be used to bypass federal safety regulations or the duty to provide a safe working environment.
Takeaway: OSHA compliance requires a formal, written Hazard Communication Program whenever employees use chemicals with a frequency or duration that exceeds normal consumer usage.
Incorrect
Correct: Under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), employers are required to develop, implement, and maintain a written hazard communication program. This includes ensuring that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are labeled, that employees have access to Safety Data Sheets (SDS), and that they receive specific training. The ‘consumer product’ exemption only applies if the product is used in the workplace in the same manner, frequency, and duration as a normal consumer would use it; professional maintenance staff stripping floors frequently exceeds this threshold, necessitating a full HazCom program.
Incorrect: Outsourcing tasks to contractors does not fully absolve a property owner or manager of safety oversight, especially in multi-employer worksites where coordination of hazard information is still required. Switching to eco-friendly products does not automatically exempt an employer from OSHA standards, as many ‘green’ chemicals still require SDS if they contain hazardous components. Digital repositories are only compliant if employees have immediate, barrier-free access to them at the worksite, and liability waivers cannot be used to bypass federal safety regulations or the duty to provide a safe working environment.
Takeaway: OSHA compliance requires a formal, written Hazard Communication Program whenever employees use chemicals with a frequency or duration that exceeds normal consumer usage.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
You are the client onboarding lead at a mid-sized retail bank. While working on Employee training and development programs for skill enhancement, professional growth, and improved operational efficiency during control testing, you receive a performance audit of the bank’s residential property management division. The report indicates that while the team is proficient in basic rent collection, there is a significant deficiency in handling complex resident conflict resolution and a lack of understanding regarding recent updates to local fair housing laws. This has resulted in a 15% increase in legal consultation fees over the last six months. To address these deficiencies while promoting long-term staff retention, which strategy should be implemented?
Correct
Correct: Conducting a skills gap analysis allows the organization to identify specific areas where training is needed, ensuring resources are used efficiently. A tiered program that combines technical knowledge (legal compliance) with soft skills (mentorship) addresses both operational efficiency and the professional growth of the employees, which is a core component of effective human resource management in property operations.
Incorrect: A one-size-fits-all module fails to account for different roles and existing expertise levels, often leading to low engagement and ineffective learning. Increasing disciplinary actions focuses on punishment rather than development and can lead to higher turnover and lower morale. Outsourcing the function removes the opportunity for internal staff growth and does not address the underlying need for a skilled internal team to manage the bank’s assets effectively.
Takeaway: Effective employee development requires a targeted approach that identifies specific skill deficiencies and provides structured paths for both technical mastery and professional advancement.
Incorrect
Correct: Conducting a skills gap analysis allows the organization to identify specific areas where training is needed, ensuring resources are used efficiently. A tiered program that combines technical knowledge (legal compliance) with soft skills (mentorship) addresses both operational efficiency and the professional growth of the employees, which is a core component of effective human resource management in property operations.
Incorrect: A one-size-fits-all module fails to account for different roles and existing expertise levels, often leading to low engagement and ineffective learning. Increasing disciplinary actions focuses on punishment rather than development and can lead to higher turnover and lower morale. Outsourcing the function removes the opportunity for internal staff growth and does not address the underlying need for a skilled internal team to manage the bank’s assets effectively.
Takeaway: Effective employee development requires a targeted approach that identifies specific skill deficiencies and provides structured paths for both technical mastery and professional advancement.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Following a thematic review of Water conservation technologies and sustainable landscaping practices to minimize resource consumption and reduce utility expenses as part of conflicts of interest, a fund administrator received feedback indicating that the irrigation costs for a 300-unit residential portfolio have increased by 25% over the last fiscal year. To address this, the Accredited Residential Manager (ARM) proposes replacing traditional turf with drought-resistant native plants and installing weather-based irrigation controllers. A preferred vendor, who is the sibling of the property’s regional supervisor, has submitted a proposal for the project. Which action should the manager take to align with professional ethics and sustainable management goals?
Correct
Correct: In property management, ethical standards require the disclosure of any potential conflicts of interest, such as a familial relationship with a vendor. By disclosing the relationship and conducting a competitive bidding process, the manager ensures that the property owner’s interests are prioritized and that the most efficient and cost-effective sustainable technology is selected based on merit rather than personal connections.
Incorrect: Accepting a bid from a relative without disclosure or competition violates fiduciary duties and ethical standards, regardless of the potential utility savings. Delaying the project unnecessarily wastes resources and fails to address the operational inefficiency of high water consumption. Negotiating a discount with a preferred vendor still bypasses the competitive bidding process required to ensure the best value and transparency for the property owner.
Takeaway: Ethical property management requires full disclosure of conflicts of interest and the use of competitive bidding to ensure sustainable upgrades are both transparent and cost-effective.
Incorrect
Correct: In property management, ethical standards require the disclosure of any potential conflicts of interest, such as a familial relationship with a vendor. By disclosing the relationship and conducting a competitive bidding process, the manager ensures that the property owner’s interests are prioritized and that the most efficient and cost-effective sustainable technology is selected based on merit rather than personal connections.
Incorrect: Accepting a bid from a relative without disclosure or competition violates fiduciary duties and ethical standards, regardless of the potential utility savings. Delaying the project unnecessarily wastes resources and fails to address the operational inefficiency of high water consumption. Negotiating a discount with a preferred vendor still bypasses the competitive bidding process required to ensure the best value and transparency for the property owner.
Takeaway: Ethical property management requires full disclosure of conflicts of interest and the use of competitive bidding to ensure sustainable upgrades are both transparent and cost-effective.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Two proposed approaches to Fire Safety and Prevention conflict. Which approach is more appropriate, and why? A property manager at a high-rise residential complex is evaluating the annual safety plan. One proposal suggests focusing resources on upgrading the building’s automated sprinkler heads and smoke detectors to the latest smart-technology standards to minimize the need for manual oversight. The second proposal suggests maintaining existing code-compliant systems while implementing a mandatory quarterly fire safety seminar for residents and conducting monthly walk-throughs of common areas to ensure fire doors are not propped open and hallways are clear of debris.
Correct
Correct: The second approach is superior because fire safety in a residential setting is not purely a technical issue; it is a management and behavioral issue. While code-compliant hardware is necessary, the leading causes of residential fires (such as unattended cooking) and the leading causes of fire-related deaths (such as blocked exits or propped-open fire doors) are behavioral. A comprehensive plan must include regular inspections and resident engagement to be effective.
Incorrect: The first proposal (options b and c) relies too heavily on technology and ignores the human element; smart detectors cannot close a propped-open fire door or stop a resident from storing flammable materials in a hallway. Option d is incorrect because providing training does not absolve a property manager of their legal duty of care to maintain a safe environment; liability remains a core responsibility of management regardless of resident education.
Takeaway: Effective fire safety management requires a balanced approach that combines the maintenance of physical life-safety systems with proactive resident education and regular site inspections.
Incorrect
Correct: The second approach is superior because fire safety in a residential setting is not purely a technical issue; it is a management and behavioral issue. While code-compliant hardware is necessary, the leading causes of residential fires (such as unattended cooking) and the leading causes of fire-related deaths (such as blocked exits or propped-open fire doors) are behavioral. A comprehensive plan must include regular inspections and resident engagement to be effective.
Incorrect: The first proposal (options b and c) relies too heavily on technology and ignores the human element; smart detectors cannot close a propped-open fire door or stop a resident from storing flammable materials in a hallway. Option d is incorrect because providing training does not absolve a property manager of their legal duty of care to maintain a safe environment; liability remains a core responsibility of management regardless of resident education.
Takeaway: Effective fire safety management requires a balanced approach that combines the maintenance of physical life-safety systems with proactive resident education and regular site inspections.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
The compliance framework at a wealth manager is being updated to address Conflict Management Strategies as part of market conduct. A challenge arises because a residential property manager, working for the firm’s real estate division, must resolve a heated dispute between two neighbors over a shared balcony space. One tenant has filed a formal grievance claiming the other’s behavior is a “nuisance” under the lease, while the other claims harassment. With a 48-hour deadline to provide a resolution plan, which strategy should the manager employ to achieve a sustainable outcome?
Correct
Correct: Mediation is a proactive conflict resolution strategy that encourages parties to find their own solutions. By facilitating a “good neighbor” agreement, the manager remains a neutral party, addresses the root cause of the friction, and promotes a long-term resolution that preserves the landlord-tenant relationship for both parties without resorting to punitive measures.
Incorrect: Amending house rules for all residents (option b) is an overreach that may penalize uninvolved tenants and lower the property’s appeal. Referring the matter to law enforcement (option c) is an escalation that abdicates the manager’s responsibility to maintain order and can lead to increased liability or hostility. Offering rent abatements (option d) creates a negative financial precedent for the owner and fails to address the actual behavior causing the conflict.
Takeaway: Successful conflict resolution in residential management prioritizes neutral mediation and collaborative agreements to resolve disputes at the root level.
Incorrect
Correct: Mediation is a proactive conflict resolution strategy that encourages parties to find their own solutions. By facilitating a “good neighbor” agreement, the manager remains a neutral party, addresses the root cause of the friction, and promotes a long-term resolution that preserves the landlord-tenant relationship for both parties without resorting to punitive measures.
Incorrect: Amending house rules for all residents (option b) is an overreach that may penalize uninvolved tenants and lower the property’s appeal. Referring the matter to law enforcement (option c) is an escalation that abdicates the manager’s responsibility to maintain order and can lead to increased liability or hostility. Offering rent abatements (option d) creates a negative financial precedent for the owner and fails to address the actual behavior causing the conflict.
Takeaway: Successful conflict resolution in residential management prioritizes neutral mediation and collaborative agreements to resolve disputes at the root level.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
As the privacy officer at a listed company, you are reviewing Permissible deductions from security deposits and timelines for return to avoid legal disputes and maintain tenant trust during data protection when an incident report arrives on your desk regarding a move-out inspection for a high-profile tenant. The property manager has identified several issues: a broken window, worn carpet in high-traffic areas, and a missing set of smart-home keys. The tenant vacated the premises 14 days ago, and the local jurisdiction requires an itemized statement and refund within 21 days. You must determine which charges are legally defensible to ensure compliance and mitigate the risk of a bad faith claim. Which of the following actions is most appropriate regarding the security deposit reconciliation?
Correct
Correct: In residential property management, security deposits may only be used for damages that exceed normal wear and tear. A broken window and missing keys are clear examples of tenant-caused damage or loss. Conversely, carpet wear in high-traffic areas is a result of ordinary use over time and is not a permissible deduction. Furthermore, the manager must act within the 21-day window to remain compliant with local statutes.
Incorrect: Deducting for normal wear and tear, such as carpet aging, is a violation of landlord-tenant law and can lead to legal liability. Withholding the deposit beyond the statutory deadline (21 days) is a common cause for ‘bad faith’ claims, which can result in the landlord being ordered to pay double or triple the deposit amount. Applying flat-rate fees without itemized proof or actual costs is often legally indefensible if challenged in court.
Takeaway: Property managers must distinguish between tenant-caused damage and normal wear and tear while strictly adhering to statutory deadlines for deposit returns to avoid legal penalties.
Incorrect
Correct: In residential property management, security deposits may only be used for damages that exceed normal wear and tear. A broken window and missing keys are clear examples of tenant-caused damage or loss. Conversely, carpet wear in high-traffic areas is a result of ordinary use over time and is not a permissible deduction. Furthermore, the manager must act within the 21-day window to remain compliant with local statutes.
Incorrect: Deducting for normal wear and tear, such as carpet aging, is a violation of landlord-tenant law and can lead to legal liability. Withholding the deposit beyond the statutory deadline (21 days) is a common cause for ‘bad faith’ claims, which can result in the landlord being ordered to pay double or triple the deposit amount. Applying flat-rate fees without itemized proof or actual costs is often legally indefensible if challenged in court.
Takeaway: Property managers must distinguish between tenant-caused damage and normal wear and tear while strictly adhering to statutory deadlines for deposit returns to avoid legal penalties.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
The supervisory authority has issued an inquiry to an audit firm concerning Cybersecurity threats and mitigation strategies for property management systems and data to protect against breaches and ensure business continuity in the context of a property management firm transitioning to a fully integrated digital leasing and payment platform. The firm manages a portfolio of 5,000 residential units and stores significant amounts of sensitive tenant data, including social security numbers and banking details. An internal audit reveals that while the system is protected by firewalls and encryption, there is no verified process for restoring operations if the primary server environment is compromised by a sophisticated malware strain. To align with best practices for risk management and business continuity, which strategy should the auditor recommend?
Correct
Correct: An immutable backup ensures that once data is written, it cannot be altered or deleted, which is critical for recovering from ransomware attacks. A formal incident response plan that is regularly tested ensures that the organization can actually execute its recovery strategy, maintaining business continuity and protecting data integrity in accordance with professional audit standards for risk mitigation.
Incorrect: Increasing insurance coverage is a risk-sharing strategy but does not provide a technical or operational control to prevent or recover from a breach. Frequent password changes are a basic administrative control but do not address the recovery of data or business continuity after a system-wide compromise. Moving data to a non-networked database is impractical for modern property management operations, as it prevents the necessary real-time access required for leasing, payments, and resident services.
Takeaway: Effective cybersecurity risk management requires a combination of technical safeguards like immutable backups and operational readiness through tested incident response plans to ensure business continuity.
Incorrect
Correct: An immutable backup ensures that once data is written, it cannot be altered or deleted, which is critical for recovering from ransomware attacks. A formal incident response plan that is regularly tested ensures that the organization can actually execute its recovery strategy, maintaining business continuity and protecting data integrity in accordance with professional audit standards for risk mitigation.
Incorrect: Increasing insurance coverage is a risk-sharing strategy but does not provide a technical or operational control to prevent or recover from a breach. Frequent password changes are a basic administrative control but do not address the recovery of data or business continuity after a system-wide compromise. Moving data to a non-networked database is impractical for modern property management operations, as it prevents the necessary real-time access required for leasing, payments, and resident services.
Takeaway: Effective cybersecurity risk management requires a combination of technical safeguards like immutable backups and operational readiness through tested incident response plans to ensure business continuity.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
The risk committee at a credit union is debating standards for Marketing Plans and Advertising Channels as part of model risk. The central issue is that the property management department’s reliance on predictive analytics for social media ad placement may inadvertently exclude certain protected classes, creating a significant compliance vulnerability. To ensure the marketing plan for a new 150-unit residential acquisition adheres to Fair Housing standards and professional property management ethics, which action should the manager implement?
Correct
Correct: Integrating a diverse mix of advertising channels is the correct approach because Fair Housing regulations and professional property management standards require that marketing efforts do not discriminate or exclude protected classes. By using a variety of outlets—including those that reach minority communities and the general public—the manager ensures that the housing opportunity is made available to all qualified individuals, mitigating the risk of disparate impact that can occur with narrow digital targeting.
Incorrect: Limiting advertising to an existing customer base is incorrect as it can lead to exclusionary practices and fail to reach a diverse applicant pool. Increasing the spend on a potentially biased algorithm does not address the underlying issue of demographic exclusion or compliance. Focusing exclusively on luxury lifestyle websites is insufficient because it may exclude qualified applicants from protected classes and fails to satisfy the requirement for broad-market outreach required for fair housing compliance.
Takeaway: A compliant marketing plan must utilize diverse advertising channels to ensure equal access to housing and mitigate the legal risks associated with narrow, algorithm-driven targeting models.
Incorrect
Correct: Integrating a diverse mix of advertising channels is the correct approach because Fair Housing regulations and professional property management standards require that marketing efforts do not discriminate or exclude protected classes. By using a variety of outlets—including those that reach minority communities and the general public—the manager ensures that the housing opportunity is made available to all qualified individuals, mitigating the risk of disparate impact that can occur with narrow digital targeting.
Incorrect: Limiting advertising to an existing customer base is incorrect as it can lead to exclusionary practices and fail to reach a diverse applicant pool. Increasing the spend on a potentially biased algorithm does not address the underlying issue of demographic exclusion or compliance. Focusing exclusively on luxury lifestyle websites is insufficient because it may exclude qualified applicants from protected classes and fails to satisfy the requirement for broad-market outreach required for fair housing compliance.
Takeaway: A compliant marketing plan must utilize diverse advertising channels to ensure equal access to housing and mitigate the legal risks associated with narrow, algorithm-driven targeting models.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
The board of directors at a mid-sized retail bank has asked for a recommendation regarding Lease enforcement and breach of lease procedures and documentation for effective resolution of tenant violations as part of incident response. The bank’s residential asset management team is dealing with a tenant who has repeatedly violated the no-business clause of their lease by operating a high-traffic courier service from their apartment. To mitigate legal exposure and ensure a successful resolution, the manager must follow a specific protocol. Which of the following represents the most appropriate sequence of actions for the manager to take?
Correct
Correct: A Notice to Cure or Quit is a legal requirement in most jurisdictions to provide the tenant an opportunity to rectify a lease violation before further legal action is taken. Citing the specific lease provision and maintaining a chronological log of evidence ensures that the landlord has met the burden of proof and followed due process, which is essential for a successful resolution in a legal setting.
Incorrect: Filing for eviction without prior notice to cure is generally legally insufficient and likely to be dismissed by a judge. Verbal warnings are difficult to prove in court and do not satisfy the formal notice requirements of most residential leases. Offering an addendum to permit a violation in exchange for fees may violate local zoning laws or create inconsistencies in lease enforcement that could lead to fair housing or discrimination claims.
Takeaway: Proper lease enforcement relies on formal written notification of specific breaches and a documented opportunity for the tenant to remedy the violation before escalating to legal action.
Incorrect
Correct: A Notice to Cure or Quit is a legal requirement in most jurisdictions to provide the tenant an opportunity to rectify a lease violation before further legal action is taken. Citing the specific lease provision and maintaining a chronological log of evidence ensures that the landlord has met the burden of proof and followed due process, which is essential for a successful resolution in a legal setting.
Incorrect: Filing for eviction without prior notice to cure is generally legally insufficient and likely to be dismissed by a judge. Verbal warnings are difficult to prove in court and do not satisfy the formal notice requirements of most residential leases. Offering an addendum to permit a violation in exchange for fees may violate local zoning laws or create inconsistencies in lease enforcement that could lead to fair housing or discrimination claims.
Takeaway: Proper lease enforcement relies on formal written notification of specific breaches and a documented opportunity for the tenant to remedy the violation before escalating to legal action.